Orthotics and Prosthetics Combined Written Boards Practice Exam

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• Which function involves stabilization of the head of the humerus during arm movements?
• What position should a patient be in when taking an impression for a custom LSO to treat L5-S1 spondylolisthesis?
• A patient with an L1 burst fracture is seen in the hospital. Which orthosis would be best suited for this case?
• Which statement correctly describes the wrist-hand orthosis typically indicated for patients with wrist drop?
• What occurs as a result of an injury at the level between C6 and C7?
• What adjustment can be made if the ischial tuberosity of a TF amputee is not positioned correctly in the socket?
• What is the main action of the palmar interossei?
• What is the effect of reducing decompensation on the critical load of the spine?
• What is the primary function of a thumb post in orthotic devices?
• What is the primary flexor of the hip?
• Which factor contributes to faulty suspension in transtibial prostheses?
• In Dupuytren's contracture, what results from the thickening of the palmar aponeurosis?
• What are the symptoms of a complete L3 spinal cord injury shortly after the incident?
• What characterizes a claw hand deformity?
• What is one of the main benefits of prosthetic knees?
• What primary muscle function is linked to the C4 myotome?
• In a SACH foot alignment for TT prosthetics, how far should the socket be positioned anterior to the ankle bolt?
• What is the primary complication associated with the most severe form of spina bifida?
• What recommendation can be made for alleviating shoulder pain in a patient with hemiplegia?
• Which condition is a contraindication for the use of an SMO?
• Why is it not advised to choose a SACH foot with a firm heel durometer for a TT patient with poor knee stability?
• What could result from a socket that is too anterior in a TF prosthetic?
• What is the primary purpose of a hyperextension spinal orthosis?
• What feature should you look for in a prosthetic foot for a K2 designated household ambulator with a TT amputation who experiences fatigue in the evening?
• What action can a patient perform to assess a lesion or injury at L4-5?
• What actions are performed by the pronator teres muscle?
• What specifically denotes the absence of the ulna?
• What is the hip position during initial swing?
• In a KAFO, what structural part can cause excessive knee flexion if incorrectly positioned?
• Which muscles are responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle?
• What is the maximum knee flexion contracture that can be accommodated with a traditional transtibial PTB socket?
• What is the recommended treatment for a type 1 Dennis fracture or anterior compression fracture?
• What is the most common form of arthrogryposis?
• What is the purpose of preflexing the elbow in a transhumeral prosthesis?
• What motions are produced by the trapezius?
• In transtibial prosthetic alignment, what is the term for the relationship between the posterior socket shelf and the lateral wall?
• What sensation is affected with an axillary nerve injury?
• What is an Ertl procedure in the context of amputation?
• In which phase is the ground reaction force found posterior to the knee and ankle, and anterior to the hip?
• In evaluating prosthetic foot mechanics, what muscular group does the resistance of the prosthetic keel resemble during eccentric contraction?
• Which muscle is primarily responsible for lateral rotation of the humerus?
• What defect indicates missing fibular structure specifically?
• What is the corresponding anatomical landmark for T3?
• Which type of TLSO aims specifically to prevent flexion in the thoracic spine?
• A patient understands speech but cannot verbalize their thoughts. What condition do they likely have?
• What is the primary function of the knee during transtibial swing phase when utilizing hydraulic technology?
• What is a common outcome for individuals with Brown-Sequard syndrome?
• What is a major source of pain in brachial plexus patients due to subluxation?
• What is the mechanism of injury commonly associated with a Denis 4 fracture?
• When both ring locks of a KAFO are engaged, what is the appropriate clearance from the ring locks to the patient's skin?
• What could cause uneven heel rise in TF prosthetics?
• What is the primary purpose of a total contact TLSO?
• What is a common cause of knee instability in TF prosthetics?
• What motor function is lost with an axillary nerve injury?
• A patient wearing a KAFO reports anterior thigh pressure while sitting. What might be the cause?
• What is the prognosis of an injury between C7 and C8?
• A 35-year-old male is seen at the local hospital with an anterior compression fracture of L1. Based on the diagnosis, what is the best orthotic recommendation?
• Where does the most sagittal motion occur in the lumbar spine?
• What benefit does elbow motion provide when using a Sarmiento orthosis?
• What is the primary action of the medial ligament of the ankle?
• What is the correct distal trimline of the opponens bar?
• A patient has sustained a stroke and exhibits a flexion synergy pattern in both upper and lower extremities. What joint patterns are expected?
• Which condition is a contraindication for using an AAFO?
• How might a wide base of support at midstance be addressed?
• What type of spina bifida involves protective membranes around the spinal cord pushing out through the vertebrae, forming a sac filled with fluid?
• During midstance, the ground reaction force is located where?
• Where is the mechanical wrist joint typically positioned?
• At heel strike/initial contact, where is the ground reaction force located?
• What is a potential outcome of an injury between C1 and C5 levels of the spinal cord?
• What is the position of the ankle at terminal swing?
• Which layer of tissue is most involved in Dupuytren's Contracture?
• What movement is controlled by the L2 myotome?
• What type of gait deviation might be observed if there is a weakness in the muscles innervated by the tibial nerve?
• What limb defect is characterized by the absence of the fibula?
• What characterizes a boutonniere deformity?
• In the context of limb defects, what does "complete" phocomelia imply?
• In the case of a patient diagnosed with an anterior cerebral artery stroke, which of the following is a common presentation?
• What type of orthosis is recommended for a patient with skin grafts in the axillary region?
• What are the actions of the biceps brachii?
• What adjustment should be made if the foot in a transtibial prosthesis is positioned too anteriorly?
• Where is the appropriate placement of the paraspinal bars for a lumbosacral orthosis?
• How does idiopathic scoliosis usually present in an adolescent female undergoing orthotic management?
• Why are flexible elbow hinges preferred for longer transradial amputees?
• Which of the following describes the role of the deep branch of the common fibular nerve?
• What motor function is primarily affected by a musculocutaneous nerve injury?
• Which factor can contribute to vaulting in TF prosthetics?
• What are the actions of the extensor carpi radialis longus?
• What adjustment is suggested if a patient experiences drop-off due to a socket being too flexed?
• What can excessive internal rotation of the knee bolt cause in TF prosthetics?
• Which of the following conditions is identified by hair tufts or dimples above the spinal defect?
• What type of prosthetic knee uses fluid resistance to manage transtibial swing?
• Which mechanical feature is critical for maintaining knee stability in a TT prosthesis?
• What action can a patient perform to check for a lesion or injury at S1?
• What condition does a Williams flexion orthosis primarily treat?
• Which nerve is responsible for innervating the quadriceps muscle?
• What is associated with the L5 myotome?
• If a TF amputee presents with knee buckling, what could be a possible cause?
• If the mechanical knee axis is located above the anatomical knee axis, what is the resultant pressure on the calf band?
• A peripheral ulnar nerve injury at the wrist could be orthotically managed with a:
• Which of the following conditions is associated with weakening of the hip extensors in early stages?
• What is a potential cause of a medial whip in TF prosthetics?
• A complete lesion of the femoral nerve as it leaves the lumbar plexus primarily affects which motion?
• What does a UCBL orthosis stabilize during stance?
• When examining a scoliosis radiograph, which direction does the vertebral body rotate in relation to the curve?
• Which is the most severe form of spina bifida where the spinal canal is open and the spinal nerves are exposed?
• Which muscles primarily facilitate finger flexion at the MP joints?
• Where is the ground reaction force during the preswing phase?
• What adjustment may be necessary if an amputee experiences discomfort in their prosthetic socket during ambulation?
• Which joints produce pronation and supination movements of the forearm?
• What condition is characterized by congenital osteoporosis and fractures occurring before and during birth?
• In mid-swing, what is the position of the knee?
• What actions are performed by the extensor carpi ulnaris?
• Rank the following knee types from least stable to most stable: outside hinges, single axis knee, weight activated friction control, polycentric.
• If the mechanical ankle axis is below the anatomical ankle axis, where are the pressures on the leg during plantar flexion?
• What could cause a drop off in trans-femoral (TF) prosthetics?
• What actions are associated with the teres minor muscle?
• In a double action AFO for a patient with good hip muscle strength but poor quadriceps and plantar flexors, which setting is most appropriate?
• What disease is commonly associated with Gower's sign?
• What action do the dorsal interossei assist with besides finger abduction?
• What is myoplasty in relation to surgical procedures for amputations?
• What would be an appropriate orthotic device for a patient with limited extension of the fingers?
• Which action does the anconeus assist with?
• Which defect includes missing parts but retains some distal structure?
• What function do the muscles innervated by the tibial nerve primarily serve?
• Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using a humeral fx Sarmiento orthosis?
• A posterior lean during ambulation is commonly observed with paralysis of which muscle group?
• What effect does an AFO with a flexible ankle provide during gait?
• In order for most patients with paraplegia to stand in KAFOs, how should the tibias be positioned relative to the ground?
• What is the defining feature of a swan neck deformity?
• Which type of injury is not associated with anterior column involvement?
• What clinical adjustment can help with distal end pressure in a BK prosthesis?
• Where should a pelvic band for an HKAFO be positioned?
• During initial contact in transtibial prostheses, what can cause the knee to remain fully extended?
• How can you further immobilize a patient with bilateral pars fractures of L5?
• Which of the following components make up the middle column of the tarsometatarsal joints?
• Which muscle is transected during a knee disarticulation?
• What presentation does the Coleman laterally block test assess for flexibility?
• Which of the following describes the actions of the teres major?
• Which brachial plexus injury involves C8-T1 and is characterized by decreased wrist and hand function?
• A complete hemimelia birth defect refers to what condition?
• What is one primary goal of using an AFO?
• Which nerve injury could result in an inability to perform dorsiflexion of the foot?
• When addressing residual limb pain that causes lateral leaning, what should be evaluated?
• During dorsiflexion, if the mechanical ankle axis is positioned above the anatomical ankle axis, where do the pressures on the leg occur?
• What term describes a defect in an unborn baby's diaphragm, dividing the chest and abdominal cavities?
• Which condition involves the complete absence of a limb?
• Which condition could lead to a long prosthetic step in a TF user?
• What does a dislocation fracture of the spine involve?
• Which condition is a contraindication for using a DAFO?
• What is the appropriate pin placement for the anterior pins of a HALO?
• What is the role of a heel lift in orthotic practice?
• In transtibial prosthetics, which factor is crucial to address for achieving optimal gait pattern?
• What is the material typically used for cervical soft collars?
• A young boy with early signs of muscular dystrophy is likely to walk with which of the following gait patterns?
• Which phase features the ankle at 10 degrees of dorsiflexion?
• What is a common use for a cervical thoracic orthosis (CTO)?
• What types of movements do the metatarsophalangeal joints allow?
• What is the most appropriate alignment for a patient with L5-S1 spondylolisthesis using a prescribed LSO?
• What level of amputation can lead to an equinus gait deformity?
• In a scoliotic curve, where does the spinous process rotate?
• Which muscle group is primarily responsible for decelerating the limb in the terminal swing phase?
• Which condition is a contra-indication for the use of a rigid LSO?
• Which bony landmark is utilized for weight bearing in a hip disarticulation prosthesis?
• What bones constitute the lateral tarsometatarsal joints?
• Which socket adjustment would likely increase pressure on the lateral-distal area?
• What is the primary purpose of a TLSO?
• What makes up the talonavicular joint?
• How does an injury between T2 and T4 generally affect a patient?
• For the L4 vertebra, what is the corresponding anatomical landmark?
• Where should an arch support pad be positioned for optimal effect?
• Which patient population is most likely to benefit from an AFO?
• Which pronation movement is affected due to anterior division brachial plexus injury?
• What is the function of the C3 myotome?
• What type of orthosis would be most appropriate for a patient with a T11 anterior compression fracture who is neurologically intact and has a stable fracture?
• What is the method used to find the baseline for corset measurement?
• What condition may result from weakness of foot pronators in a prosthetic user?
• A clawhand appearance is primarily caused by damage to which nerve?
• What might lead to an uneven arm swing in a TF amputee?
• Which form of spina bifida typically results in a separation of one or more vertebrae with no nerve involvement?
• What is the effect of ankle dorsiflexion on ground reaction forces?
• Which components are included in the supination of the foot-ankle complex?
• Which muscle group does the median nerve primarily innervate?
• What is the ankle position during midstance?
• Where is inflammation typically located in cases of tennis elbow?
• Why is recommending two knees that require toe loading contraindicated for a bilateral TF amputee?
• What is a likely cause for a socket appearing to drop away from the residual limb in TT prostheses during preswing?
• What is the posterior trimline for a TLSO?
• Which action would be most beneficial for a patient with limited dorsiflexion in a custom AFO?
• What does the term "flexing the socket" refer to in prosthetic foot design?
• Which of the following is a potential long-term outcome of untreated tibial fractures?
• What is the angle of the ankle during the loading response phase of gait?
• What is the primary action of the extensor carpi radialis brevis?
• What defines a cycle of gait?
• What is the action of the major and minor rhomboids on the scapula?
• What is a likely cause of terminal impact in TF prosthetics?
• What is the main function of abdominal compression in an LSO?
• What does the TLSO with flexion control primarily limit?
• What addition can be made to an AFO to decrease excessive pronation?
• What type of fracture is a Jefferson fracture?
• At initial swing, what is the degree of knee flexion?
• What stabilization feature is essential for maintaining proper function in a transtibial prosthesis?
• What is the best orthotic choice for a patient 6 weeks post C1 fracture when the area shows stability and signs of callous formation?
• Where should the anterior pins for a HALO be placed?
• What is the typical treatment for a Denis 1 fracture of T1-8?
• What does the presence of a claw hand deformity indicate about underlying nerve function?
• Which condition might result in lateral trunk bending in transtibial (TF) prosthetics?
• Which action is primarily governed by the C7 myotome?
• What are some benefits of knee disarticulation compared to above knee amputation in terms of prosthetic fit?
• For a patient with lower lumbar stenosis, what alignment should an LSO be set in?
• What angle is the knee in during the loading response phase?
• Which orthosis is best suited for individuals with DF weakness?
• What is a contraindication for the use of a Carbon AFO?
• What is the primary action associated with the C4 myotome?
• What condition is characterized by a hand deformity where knots of tissue form under the skin, leading to a bent position of the fingers?
• What is the end point vertebrae in a scoliotic curve?
• During the stance phase of gait, what percentage of the cycle does it generally comprise?
• What muscles are innervated by the deep branch of the common fibular nerve?
• What motion does a cushioned heel simulate during impact?
• Which cervical level exhibits the most sagittal motion?
• Which clinical action may alleviate posterior knee or hamstring discomfort in a BK amputee?
• What is the landmark for locating the knee center when casting for a KAFO?
• Which condition is a contraindication for a reciprocal gait orthosis (RGO)?
• When the foot is inset in a prosthetic socket, where does the pressure increase?
• What mechanism leads to an odontoid fracture?
• What deformity is most likely to result from ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which statement best describes a GRAFO?
• What is described as missing the radius but not affecting other bones?
• Toe in or toe out describes the relationship of the long axis of the foot to which structure?
• What device is commonly used in the treatment of developmental dysplasia of the hip?
• What type of orthosis is recommended for a patient diagnosed with Scheuermann's kyphosis at the apex of T9?
• Which nerve injury is associated with the claw hand deformity?
• Which condition is marked by inward bowing of the lower leg that progresses over time?
• In relation to the apex of the great trochanter, where is the mechanical hip joint typically located?
• In the context of a Krukenberg procedure, which muscle is primarily responsible for the pincer grip?
• What is the treatment aim of hyperextension orthoses like CASH and Jewett?
• What is a common symptom associated with an injury between C1 and C5?
• Which type of aphasia is characterized by difficulty understanding spoken words while speech production remains intact?
• What term describes the degeneration of the spine?
• What biomechanical principle is associated with an LSO corset?
• Which anatomical landmark corresponds to T9?
• Which fracture type is characterized by translation, flexion, rotation, and shear?
• What type of fracture occurs at the distal aspect of the radius, typically from wrist extension and radial deviation?
• What characterizes central cord syndrome?
• Why is a CTLSO: Milwaukee not recommended for a person with a paralytic spine?
• Which muscle test would likely be positive for a patient with a forward flexed posture after a stroke?
• What bones constitute the talocrural joint?
• Where is the distal trim line of a thumb post typically located?
• What are the primary actions of the latissimus dorsi muscle?
• What is the greatest advantage of a dorsal style wrist-hand orthosis (WHO) over a volar style?
• What could lead to lateral rotation of the foot at heel strike in TF prosthetics?
• In a conventional AFO with double action ankle joints, what setup is most appropriate for a patient who buckles at the knee during loading response?
• Which material is best suited for fabricating a cross back strap in a figure of 8 harness?
• Which adjustment can correct an unequal stride length in transtibial prostheses?
• What impact does a complete injury at T10 have on lower extremity function?
• What landmark is associated with the L3-4 vertebrae?
• What does the term spondylolisthesis refer to?
• At the midtarsal joint, which motions occur?
• What condition makes a SAFO inappropriate for use?
• What is a potential outcome for patients with injuries at the level between C6 and C7?
• What might cause a patient with a TF prosthesis to feel a ramus pressure during ambulation?
• What does the term "axial" refer to in medical terminology regarding limb structures?
• What type of heel is recommended for a smoother gait when using an AFO with a solid ankle?
• Which myotome is responsible for knee flexion and plantarflexion?
• Why is it essential to use Berkeley alignable componentry before finalizing an exoskeletal prosthesis?
• A patient with an ulnar nerve injury may present with which hand appearance?
• What presentation is expected with a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus?
• For the T7-8 vertebrae, what is the corresponding landmark?
• If the oblique diameter of the anatomical malleoli is 83mm, what is the inside diameter of the mechanical ankle joint?
• In which of the following conditions might sagittal flexion be beneficial when using an orthotic?
• What is the role of the latissimus dorsi in movement?
• Which area experiences sensory loss in the case of a musculocutaneous nerve injury?
• When treating an adult patient with an anterior hip dislocation, what is crucial to maintain?
• Why are polycentric knees considered stable in prosthetics?
• What is the position of the hip that has the highest risk for posterior dislocation after a motor vehicle accident?
• What is one of the primary functions of the supraspinatus muscle?
• In which movement does the pectoralis major not participate?
• Which of the following AFO designs is most appropriate for patients requiring maximal control of the ankle during stance?
• Which of the following conditions is most likely to benefit from a floor reaction AFO?
• Which type of prosthetic knee offers the least stability?
• What are the long-term benefits of treating a humeral fracture with a Sarmiento orthosis?
• What deformity is commonly seen in a trans-metatarsal amputee due to weakness of the pronators?
• What is club foot primarily characterized by?
• What is the normal degree of stance flexion at heel strike for a prosthetic limb?
• What characterizes a Denis 2 fracture of T1-8?
• Which knee type may be less functional in cold weather?
• What condition is indicated by needing medial longitudinal arch support in foot orthotics, specifically in the context of knee osteoarthritis?
• Which option lists the choices for controlling the cervical spine from least to most effective?
• What design feature is characteristic of a Static Ankle Foot Orthosis (SAFO)?
• What is a common consequence of improper fitting of a KAFO on the thigh area?
• What is the main function of a PLS (Posterior Leaf Spring) orthosis?
• What is indicated by a patient who leans heavily on their prosthesis?
• If the mechanical ankle axis is above the anatomical ankle axis, what is the motion of the calf band with respect to the leg during dorsiflexion?
• A BK amputee reports anterior/distal discomfort in their socket. What could be done to alleviate this issue?
• The most important motor acquisition in C5 quadriplegia is:
• What is the most characteristic clinical sign of a left cerebral vascular accident (CVA)?
• How does a cavo varus foot typically present?
• What anatomical structure is at risk during a L1 burst fracture?
• Where is the ground reaction force during loading response?
• What is a feature of a DAFO orthosis?
• The talocrural joint is essentially classified as which type of joint?
• When designing a thermoplastic KAFO for a patient with severe genurecavatum, which modification could help control knee hyperextension?
• What is the maximum acceptable malalignment for managing a tibial fracture with an off-the-shelf fracture orthosis?
• A patient with C6 quadriplegia will have difficulty using which type of prehension?
• What condition is characterized by red, wart-like formations and cracked skin distally in a TF amputee?
• What is the effect of an injury at the level between C5 and C6?
• Which terminal device is best suited for holding a broom for a TH amputee using a body-powered prosthesis?
• Which term describes a toe in a down position and a limitation in dorsiflexion of the ankle?
• During midswing, how is the hip positioned?
• What is the recommended intervention for a patient with an ankle sprain to facilitate recovery?
• Which of the following actions is performed by the pectoralis minor muscle?
• Which of the following are the main deficits resulting from a radial nerve injury?
• What is the primary supinator of the forearm?
• Which muscles are innervated by the tibial nerve?
• What describes the effect of an injury at the level between T2 and T4?
• What condition is a cervical soft collar typically prescribed to treat?
• What is the primary function of an Ankle Foot Orthosis (AAFO)?
• In terms of design, what distinguishes a dynamic AFO?
• What hand function is particularly affected by radial nerve damage?
• Which muscle management style is most beneficial for a myoelectric prosthesis candidate in a TH amputation?
• What does a Carbon AFO (Ankle-Foot Orthosis) primarily treat?
• What is the action of the coracobrachialis muscle?
• What muscles are affected by an injury to the median nerve?
• What is the most important biomechanical principle when managing a neuromuscular spine?
• What is the primary action of the lateral ligament of the ankle?
• What is the coronal alignment for a SACH foot in a TT prosthesis?
• What degree of flexion does the knee reach during midstance?
• Where should the mechanical knee joint be positioned on a KAFO?
• Where is the ground reaction force located during the midswing phase?
• Which injury mechanism is associated with a Hangman's fracture?
• What is a common goal of modifying an orthosis for a patient with foot drop?
• What is the corresponding landmark for the L2 vertebra?
• Which motor function is affected by a median nerve injury?
• Which nerve innervates the rhomboids and levator scapulae?
• What adjustment should be made if there is no varus moment at midstance?
• Hypokyphosis is defined as having a sagittal curve magnitude in the range of:
• Which group of muscles is typically the weakest in above knee amputees?
• What type of ankle joint control is indicated for a patient with paralysis of the plantarflexors?
• A dynamic IP extension assist with an MP extension stop should be used if a patient:
• In a transtibial prosthesis, what could be a cause of drop-off during preswing?
• What is a key characteristic of hemimelia?
• In the assessment of scoliosis, which curve type typically requires a thoracic brace?
• What is a common functional outcome associated with anterior interosseous nerve injury?
• What is the best orthotic recommendation for a 20-year-old male with an L1 burst fracture?
• A BK amputee presents with distal end pressure and knee pain. What should be the first clinical action?
• What is the primary function of a Thomas heel in shoe modification?
• Where do the peripheral nerve roots originate?
• What type of treatment is associated with Neuroorthosis?
• In the case of a TF amputee experiencing issues during walking, which factor is critical for assessment?
• Which of the following describes the actions of the infraspinatus muscle?
• What condition might occur if a Silesian belt is improperly fitted?
• A polymer AFO is inappropriate for which of the following conditions?
• What clinical presentation is caused by an unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid?
• In what direction does recovery typically occur in Guillain-Barre syndrome?
• Which ligament supports the medial longitudinal arch of the foot by providing a resting surface for the talus?
• A patient with an inferior lumbar myelomeningocele may develop hip flexion contractures due to which factor?
• What could cause lateral trunk bending to the prosthetic side during midstance?
• Which function do the lumbricals serve in finger movement?
• What birth defect occurs when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly?
• In a patient with T10 incomplete spinal cord injury, which ankle control option is suitable for an AFO?
• At which point in the gait cycle are the most muscles actively engaged?
• What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the spinal column?
• What is the primary purpose of a KAFO?
• Which myotome is primarily involved in elbow flexion and wrist extension?
• A patient presents with C6 quadriplegia. Which muscles will the patient use to manipulate a wrist-driven orthosis to achieve prehension?
• What is the position of the ankle, knee, and hip during initial contact in gait?
• What is the primary purpose of using a DAFO orthosis?
• What is a defining characteristic of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
• What is the function of the lumbricals during finger movement?
• What is a common symptom experienced by individuals with radial nerve injury?
• What describes a Hangman's fracture?
• A complete lesion of the tibial nerve on one leg will most likely result in which gait deviation?
• What is considered a favorable outcome in the orthotic management of a tibial fracture?
• Which biomechanical principle is most effective in unloading an intervertebral disc?
• What condition is characterized by a ulnar nerve injury?
• What is the range of socket flexion recommended for a SACH foot in TT prosthetics?
• Which type of orthosis is recommended for patients with foot drop in order to prevent ankle plantarflexion during stance?
• If a patient in a WHO: MP stop, IP extension assist orthosis recovers the ulnar nerve, how should the orthosis be modified?
• What is the most likely cause of shoulder flexion weakness and scapular winging in a patient who chopped wood?
• What is an important consideration when fitting a transtibial prosthetic socket for a knee flexion contracture?
• Where should the axillary extension of a Boston style scoliosis orthosis for a double curve be located?
• What is the minimum amount of acceptable correction for a scoliotic curve while within the orthosis?
• What is the primary function associated with the C8 myotome?
• If the mechanical ankle axis is below the anatomical ankle axis, where are the pressures on the leg during dorsiflexion?
• What is a contraindication for using a GRAFO?
• Which area experiences loss of sensation in a radial nerve injury?
• What is the motion of the calf band with respect to the leg if the mechanical ankle axis is below the anatomical axis?
• What is the minimum acceptable efficiency for cable and cable housing?
• In TF prosthetics, if there is excessive heel rise, which factor could be contributing?
• What is primarily achieved by utilizing a reciprocal gait orthosis?
• What makes up the calcaneocuboid joint?
• What corrective action should be taken if too much adduction is observed in the socket?
• In the early recovery phase of a patient with a complete L3 spinal cord injury, what is the expected outcome?
• When fabricating a Rancho-style hand orthosis, where should the thumb post be terminated?
• What are the primary actions of the flexor carpi radialis muscle?
• What may result in a lateral whip in TF prosthetics?
• What landmark is associated with the T4-5 vertebrae?
• What area of sensation is lost with a median nerve injury?
• During midstance, if the pylon leans medially, what is a likely cause?
• What joints make up the midtarsal joint?
• Which of the following orthoses is used for a gradual reduction in kyphosis?
• What are common compensations for a fixed forefoot varum disorder?
• Which action is performed by the serratus anterior muscle?
• TT sockets that are excessively extended cause excessive pressure in which area?
• What condition is characterized by compression of the posterior tibial nerve through the tarsal tunnel?
• What are some contraindications for a floor reaction AFO?
• What motions are produced at the interphalangeal joints?
• Which pathologies would indicate the need for a first ray relief and lateral wedge in a functional foot orthotic?
• What does an incomplete phocomelia birth defect entail?
• In which orthotic situation would a thumb post generally be used?
• What nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle?
• Which terminal device is recommended for a TR patient wanting to pick up a small coin from a table?
• What is the name of the condition related to dislocation of the hip due to abnormal hip joint development in babies?
• Which muscle group originates at the medial humeral epicondyle?
• What is a common indication for extending the socket in a BK prosthesis?
• Which nerve is responsible for innervating the deltoid and teres minor muscles?
• What is one advantage of myodesis over myoplasty for amputations?
• To correct genu valgum, forces should be applied over which locations?
• What are the anterior trimlines for a LSO?
• What condition involves inflammation of the area just below the knee where the patellar tendon attaches to the tibia?
• What is a simple option for pre-positioning the prosthetic elbow in flexion for a TH amputee using a body-powered prosthesis?
• In aligning a bail component of a cam lock knee joint, where should the posterior aspect of the bail be aligned?
• What is the expected outcome of an injury located between T5 and T8?
• Which muscle is primarily responsible for the action of extending the great toe?
• What is the primary action of the subclavius muscle?
• What may cause uneven timing during gait for a TF prosthetic user?
• What conditions serve as contraindications for the use of a UCBL?
• Which movements are produced at the subtalar joint?
• The anterior cruciate ligament attaches to which part of the femur?
• During terminal stance, what degree of hip movement is observed?
• What is the typical treatment for a Jefferson fracture?
• What does a pre or post axial radial hemimelia birth defect involve?
• Which type of knee is most affected by cold weather conditions?
• What is the resultant pressure on the calf band if the mechanical knee axis is located below the anatomical knee axis?
• What is the primary action of the L3 myotome?
• What does the term "paraxial" refer to in limb defects?
• Outsetting the prosthetic foot on a TT prosthesis increases pressure in what area?
• Which of the following describes cauda equina syndrome?
• What is the location of the ground reaction force during terminal stance?
• At what level of quadriplegia is a balanced forearm orthosis beneficial?
• What is the corresponding landmark for the T2 vertebra?
• What is a common adjustment made to accommodate a TH amputee’s shoulder strength limitations?
• What nerve innervates the gluteus medius muscle?
• What condition is characterized by difficulty in building, assembling, or drawing objects despite understanding the tasks?
• At what apex of a scoliotic curve is a Milwaukee CTLSO indicated?
• What birth defect describes the condition of having a full limb missing?
• For a patient with a flaccid ankle, what is the appropriate setup for the double action ankle joint?
• When converting a conventional AFO into a DF assist AFO, where should the springs be positioned in the double action ankle joint?
• Which modification is designed to lessen the impact on the metatarsal heads?
• What is often a complication for a TT amputee with excessive extension of the socket?
• What is the correct sequence for tightening HALO pins?
• What is the primary function of the flexor digitorum profundus?
• Which types of motion occurs in the talocrural joint?
• Which muscles produce plantarflexion of the ankle?
• In which case would a PLS be effectively applied?
• Which prosthetic knee is associated with mechanical stability?
• To regain stability for a TF amputee complaining of instability, what adjustment could be made?
• What are the Chopart joints?
• Where is the navicular bone located in relation to the talus?
• What actions are attributed to the subscapularis muscle?
• What is the main purpose of using spinal orthotics in patients with muscular dystrophy?
• When placing a heel wedge on a shoe with a conventional AFO to address a flexible varus hindfoot, where should the wedge be positioned?
• What modification should be made to a scoliosis orthosis for hypokyphosis?
• Which nerve is innervated by the supraspinatus and infraspinatus?
• What is the purpose of measuring external rotation of the ankle joint?
• What structures make up the medial column of the tarsometatarsal joints?
• What is the primary motor function of the tibial nerve?
• Which type of scoliotic curve is expected to progress more given its location?
• What are the components of pronation of the foot-ankle complex?
• What defines the boundaries of Scarpa's triangle?
• If the superficial branch of the common peroneal nerve is injured, which motion would be lost?
• Which statement best describes Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
• What is the anatomical significance of the calcaneus?
• Which shoe modification is most effective for a fixed equinus deformity?
• Which myotome is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion?
• Why is a SOMI not effective in controlling cervical extension?
• Which nerve is primarily associated with the function of the serratus anterior?
• Which orthosis is designed for flexion and extension control?
• What position is the ankle in during the pre-swing phase?
• A TT patient with a painful grade 1 osteochondral defect would benefit from which alignment change?
• What is the loss of function associated with a posterior interosseous nerve injury?
• Which clinical action might be necessary for a transitional phase in prosthetic fitting?
• A 68-year-old woman presents with rheumatoid arthritis. What deformity is most likely to occur at her metacarpophalangeal joints?
• What are the percentages of stance and swing phases in the gait cycle?
• Which orthosis is most suitable for managing a T6, 2-column compression fracture?
• Which issue relates to insufficient pre-flexion of the socket in TF prosthetics?
• What is a mallet finger?
• Which muscle group is responsible for the abduction of the 2nd and 4th fingers at the MP joint?
• Which type of socket is not recommended for a bilateral transradial amputee?
• Which phase of gait does a rocker sole most closely simulate?
• What is a key cosmetic concern for individuals with a knee disarticulation?
• Cauda equina syndrome primarily affects which area of the spine?
• Before taking the impression for an L1 burst fracture, which ligament's status should be established?
• Which condition could exacerbate instability in the prosthetic knee in a TF prosthesis?
• Which type of orthotic device is generally used for treating burst fractures?
• In the context of scoliosis treatment, what is the primary goal of orthotic intervention?
• What is the function of metatarsal pads?
• What muscle weakness is primarily responsible for causing a Trendelenburg gait?
• When is it most appropriate to begin orthotic management for a mid-shaft humeral fracture?
• Which orthosis is indicated for a child with S1 intact from spina bifida?
• If the mechanical knee axis is located above the anatomical knee axis, what is the resultant pressure on the thigh band?
• With a torn lateral cord of the brachial plexus, which function would be most limited?
• What is a fix for an excessive varus moment noted at midstance?
• What is the primary function of the tibialis anterior muscle?
• What type of fracture is a Denis 3 fracture of T9-12 most associated with?
• What is the effect of an injury at the level between C8 and T1?
• What type of sockets should a bilateral TF amputee have?
• What is the primary role of the flexor carpi radialis in wrist movement?
• Which issue is likely to cause circumducted gait in TF prosthetics?
• What disorder is characterized by abnormal growth of the thoracic spine leading to exaggerated kyphosis?
• What is Guillain-Barre disease?
• Which myotome corresponds to elbow extension and wrist flexion?
• What can contribute to an abducted gait in TF prosthetics?
• What is a potential cause for excessive knee flexion during initial contact in transtibial prostheses?
• What condition is characterized by a growth disturbance on the medial proximal aspect of the tibia?
• What does a Supramalleolar Orthosis (SMO) primarily assist with?
• What could cause a TT amputee to experience external rotation of the heel at heel strike?
• What is the most common cause of a stroke?
• What condition is characterized by inflammation of the vertebrae?
• Which motion occurs during ankle dorsiflexion?
• What is a common indication for using a Boston style scoliosis orthosis?
• What joint produces abduction and adduction of the phalanges?
• What is the nerve root of the obturator nerve?
• What is a typical complication associated with inadequate soft tissue management in amputation?
• Which nerve is recognized as the largest nerve of the lumbar plexus?
• Which myotome is responsible for finger abduction and adduction?
• What is the primary role of the L2 myotome?
• What condition could cause a narrow base of support during midstance in transtibial prostheses?
• What does knee flexion primarily involve?
• What condition might lead to foot slap in a TF prosthetic user?
• What is the primary cause of anterior spinal artery syndrome?
• What is the motion of the thigh band if the mechanical knee axis is located above the anatomical knee axis?
• What is the ideal placement of a metacarpophalangeal (MP) extension stop?
• What motor function loss is expected with an anterior interosseous nerve injury?
• What prosthetic feature can help accommodate a patient’s varying activity levels throughout the day?
• What is a characteristic feature of the PLS orthosis?
• How is the ML measurement calculated in a transfemoral quad style socket?
• What radiographic sign contraindicates orthotic intervention for spondylolisthesis and suggests surgical candidacy?
• Which muscles are innervated by the obturator nerve?
• What is the anatomical landmark for S2?
• What is a simple option for increasing the ease of pre-positioning the prosthetic elbow in flexion for a TH amputee with a body powered prosthesis?
• What movement is associated with the C6 myotome?
• What is the primary function of the plantar flexor muscles?
• Which myotome corresponds to shoulder abduction?
• Which condition is characterized by multiple joint contractures and muscle weakness present at birth?
• In a patient with lumbar degenerative joint disease, how should you align them in the sagittal plane with a prescribed LSO?
• What motor function is lost due to a radial nerve injury?
• In which phase of healing is an LSO particularly useful?
• In a typical gait cycle, which phase follows the heel strike phase?
• What is the location of the lateral stabilization bar in a transtibial prosthesis?
• What modification could help an above-knee amputee using a body-powered prosthesis who reports excessive effort in operating the mechanical elbow?
• What is inflammation anterior to the flexor retinaculum commonly called?
• Which of the following muscle groups is primarily responsible for eversion of the subtalar joint?
• Which condition is best managed with a TLSO that provides sagittal control?
• What is the primary function of the iliopsoas muscle?
• Where is the proper location for a hip joint in a transfemoral socket?
• What is described as an incomplete hemimelia birth defect?
• What might cause a mild knee extension moment in a transtibial (TT) amputee?
• Which nerve roots make up the brachial plexus?
• What is commonly seen with hip flexion contractures in a patient with inferior lumbar myelomeningocele?
• What is the motion of the thigh band if the mechanical knee axis is located below the anatomical knee axis?
• What is the purpose of a Silesian belt in prosthetics?
• What is the expected outcome of a well-fitted TT prosthesis in terms of gait mechanics?
• What is the effect of an injury at the level between S3 and S5?
• What bones form the subtalar joint?
• Injuries to which nerve are likely to present with an ape hand and hand benediction appearance?
• What actions occur at the metatarsophalangeal joints when the toes are flexed?
• What motor function is impaired with an ulnar nerve injury?
• What does a chance/lap belt/slice fracture typically involve?
• What is the first joint structure affected by degenerative joint disease?
• What condition is NOT typically treated by a TLSO?
• What is a defining feature of a burst fracture of the spine?
• What alignment adjustment should be made when flexing an above-knee socket to accommodate a flexion contracture?
• Which muscles are innervated by the superficial branch of the common fibular nerve?
• What is the flexor retinaculum also known as?
• What is characterized as a missing tibia down, including the tibial side of the foot?
• In which condition do many patients often remain unaware due to lack of symptoms?
• What sensation is lost with an ulnar nerve injury?
• What treatment is typically NOT recommended for a Denis 4 fracture?
• What are the Lisfranc joints?
• What condition results from the severing of the upper trunk nerves at C5-6?
• What functionality does a Knight-Taylor orthosis provide?
• Which pathologies would indicate the need for medial longitudinal arch support in a functional foot orthotic?
• In addressing a varus deformity at the ankle with a Sabolich trimline, which three points of pressure are applied?
• Which component is often included in the design of a body-powered prosthesis for enhanced control?
• When assessing a patient with a tight web space, which component should you include in your recommendation?
• What is the appropriate pin placement for the posterior pins of a HALO?
• What constitutes the "unhappy triad" in orthopedic injuries?
• What is another name for a Knight orthosis?
• In a transmetatarsal amputation, what gait deviation is typically observed?
• What does a grade 2 pedicle rotation indicate?
• What nerve primarily innervates the intrinsic muscles of the thenar eminence?
• Which nerve innervates the tibialis posterior muscle?
• What does myodesis refer to in the context of muscle management during amputation?
• How does the body typically compensate for a reduction in lumbar lordosis?
• What is the primary concern with anterior spinal artery syndrome?
• What is one of the main causes for a patient's foot being too inset leading to an excessive varus moment?
• Which of the following motions occur at the ankle joint?
• What defect is described as missing the fibula down, including the radial part of the foot?
• Which muscles are innervated by the sciatic nerve?
• A patient has suffered a radial nerve injury. Which component is most likely to be added to the orthotic recommendation?
• What is a common feature in the hands, wrists, and feet of a newborn with arthrogryposis?
• What might be affected as a result of an injury at T5-T8?
• On which side should the trochanteric extension of an orthosis be placed?
• In the appropriate alignment for a TF prosthesis, how far should the knee be positioned posterior to the socket?
• What is an option for pre-positioning the elbow in flexion for a TH amputee with limited glenohumeral flexion strength?
• Which action is primarily performed by the levator scapulae?
• What is the medical term for the loss of ability to understand or express speech?
• Which nerve is primarily associated with palmar interossei and lumbrical function?
• What structures are removed during a forequarter amputation?
• A WHO wrist extension assist could be utilized for nerve damage at which level?
• What ligament structure supports the lateral aspect of the ankle?
• What are the primary actions of the pectoralis major muscle?
• Which of the following structures can result from poor orthotic design for ankle control?
• What is one benefit of using pretibial pads in a BK prosthesis?
• What kind of orthosis is typically used for the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
• What type of orthosis provides the best 3-point pressure system for managing a T1 level fracture?
• What is the primary purpose of a double action ankle joint in an AFO?
• What is preserved in posterior cord syndrome despite injury?
• Where is the ground reaction force during the initial swing phase?
• The 1st carpometacarpal joint is classified as what type of joint?
• Which component would you recommend for a patient with no volitional strength of the thumb?
• Which of the following is a contraindication for a PLS orthosis?
• What type of knee joint allows a spina bifida patient to get to an erect position without manual locking?
• Which joint primarily facilitates finger flexion and extension?
• Which condition presents a contraindication for Neuroorthosis?
• Which anatomical landmark corresponds to the junction of T2-3?
• What condition may occur due to excessive adduction of the prosthetic pylon at midstance?
• When aligning the prosthetic socket posterior to the foot, where will the forces in the socket increase?
• When does the greatest amount of dorsiflexion occur during the gait cycle?
• Which orthosis can be categorized as a posterior shell TLSO?
• Which of the following is true regarding a compression fracture of the spine?
• What is the effect of an injury between T11 to L1?
• What action corresponds to the T1 myotome?
• What movements are associated with the S1 myotome?
• In managing flexible pes planus, what type of orthosis is typically recommended?
• What are the actions of the rhomboid major and minor muscles?
• What is a common cause of knee pain in growing adolescents?
• What is primarily used for suspension in a hip disarticulation prosthesis?
• Why is intra-abdominal pressure used in spinal orthotics?
• What is a common characteristic of gait in patients with hip extensor weakness?
• If the mechanical knee axis is located below the anatomical knee axis, what is the resultant pressure on the thigh band?
• If insufficient knee preflexion is present in a transtibial prosthesis, what corrective action should be taken?
• A humeral fracture can be managed orthotically if it is in the __ of the humerus. The most important biomechanical principle when managing these fractures is __.
• Which fracture involves hyperextension as a mechanism of injury?
• What is the effect of an injury at the level between L2 and S2?
• If the mechanical ankle axis is above the anatomical ankle axis, where are the pressures on the leg during plantar flexion?
• Which defect refers to the absence of the ulnar bone?
• What is the best initial recommendation for a newborn patient diagnosed with talipes equinovarus?
• What is the most likely mechanism of injury for a patient with disruption of multiple spinal ligaments while being neurologically intact?
• A poor suspension in a TF prosthetic could lead to which of the following issues?
• A TF amputee that experiences a rapid drop of the knee may need to adjust what aspect of their prosthetic?
• What aspect is important when evaluating a TH amputee's functional performance with a prosthesis?
• What is the progression order of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
• What are the anterior trimlines of a TLSO?
• What might excessive lordosis in a TF prosthetic indicate?
• What is the primary mechanism of injury for an anterior compression fracture of C3-C7?
• What issue may arise from a too soft DF bumper in a TF prosthetic?
• What effect does an injury at the level between T9-T11 have on a patient?
• Froment's test is primarily used to assess which condition?
• For optimal function in a prosthetic limb, which property is crucial for the interface material?
• Which maneuver is used to diagnose De Quervain's Tendonitis?
• What common condition can be treated with an SMO?
• Which condition results from avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head in children?
• Which correction is best for a flexible hindfoot varus?
• What is the recommended fix for a lateral lean of the pylon at midstance?
• What orthosis would be best for managing a compression fracture at T11 with 20% anterior compression?
• What is a break in the pars interarticularis called?
• Paralytic equinus during the swing phase is often caused by injury to which nerve?
• During which phase of the stance is a patient with hallux rigidus likely to experience the most discomfort?
• What are the actions of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle?
• Clubfoot is described as a condition where the foot points in which direction?
• Which medical sign indicates weakness of the proximal muscles of the lower limb?
• Inversion and eversion motions primarily occur at which joint?